SSC CPO Mock Test 2027: Free Delhi Police SI & CAPF Series

URGENT CORRECTION / AMBER CALLOUT BOX

Direct Clarification for SSC CPO Aspirants:

• (1) The "old" 200 question pattern myth: is very much alive and well on many coaching websites. They still go on to say that SSC CPO Paper-I has 200 questions in 2 hours, Paper-II is a 200 mark English only paper and that the marks from Paper-I count in the final merit. The actual new pattern is: Paper-I is 100 questions (100 marks, 60 minutes) with a 15 minute sectional timer for each subject (25 questions per subject) and is QUALIFYING ONLY (used solely to shortlist for PST/PET). Paper-II is now a 4 subject, 160 question, 320 mark paper (2 hours) which is the paper that determines 100% of the final merit (plus the NCC bonus marks).
• (2) Testbook's broken Paper-II table: they've got a completely wrong table on their site claiming that English (100 questions) is only 20 minutes and that the total is 40+40+40+200 = 400 marks in 1 hour. The actual official Paper-II structure is: Part I Reasoning (20 Qs, 40M, 20 mins), Part II General Awareness (20 Qs, 40M, 20 mins), Part III Quantitative Aptitude (20 Qs, 40M, 20 mins) and Part IV English Comprehension (100 Qs, 200M, 60 mins) = 160 Qs, 320 Marks, 120 minutes total. +2 for correct, -0.50 for wrong.
• (3) Don't do any practice on recycled SSC CGL mocks: which are being sold as CPO mocks. The SSC CGL mocks you do have an open 60 minute clock (no sectional locks). On the day of the CPO exam the Quant and Reasoning sections will lock at 15 minutes exactly.

Subject Breakdown: General Intelligence & Reasoning (25 Qs / 25 Marks), General Knowledge & Awareness (25 Qs / 25 Marks), Quantitative Aptitude (25 Qs / 25 Marks) and English Comprehension (25 Qs / 25 Marks).

Sectional Timer Rule: each section is open for precisely 15 minutes. At 15:00 it locks and moves on to the next section. You can't go back to a previous section.

Qualifying Nature: Paper-I marks are not counted in the final merit list. You do however have to clear the category-wise cutoff in order to qualify for the PST and PET.

Subject Breakdown: Part I Reasoning (20 Qs / 40 Marks / 20 Mins), Part II General Awareness (20 Qs / 40 Marks / 20 Mins), Part III Quantitative Aptitude (20 Qs / 40 Marks / 20 Mins) and Part IV English Comprehension (100 Qs / 200 Marks / 60 Mins).

Marking scheme: +2.00 for each correct answer; -0.50 for each wrong answer.

Merit Weightage: 100% of your final selection rank is on the basis of your normalised score in Paper-II plus any applicable NCC bonus marks.

Minutes 00 to 09 (9 Mins) — First Wave (14–15 Qs): Rapidly solve single-step calculation or direct grammar/vocabulary questions. Build an immediate score buffer.

Minutes 09 to 14 (5 Mins) — Second Wave (5–6 Qs): Tackle moderate analytical or puzzle-based questions.

Minute 14 to 15 (1 Min) — 50:50 Review & Guess Buffer: Instantly execute educated guesses on bookmarked items before the 15-minute auto-lock shutters the section.

Reasoning (20 Qs / 20 Mins): Solve coding, series, and non-verbal sets quickly; use the last 3 minutes to review flagged items.

General Awareness (20 Qs / 20 Mins): Pure factual recall. Answer known static GK and current affairs; avoid wasting time on unknown facts since GA cannot be solved by calculation.

Quantitative Aptitude (20 Qs / 20 Mins): Allocate 1 minute per arithmetic or advanced math question.

English Comprehension (100 Qs / 60 Mins): Split into three blocks: 22 mins for Grammar/Vocab (Q1–Q40), 23 mins for Cloze Test & Para-Jumbles (Q41–Q75), and 15 mins for Reading Comprehension passages (Q76–Q100).

Q1. (Arithmetic / Percentage) यदि किसी संख्या में उसके 20% की वृद्धि करने पर 720 प्राप्त होता है, तो वह मूल संख्या ज्ञात कीजिए।
If a number is increased by 20% of itself, it results in 720. Find the original number.
A. 550
B. 600 [Correct]
C. 650
D. 680

Option (Correct): B. 600 [Correct] -> Reason: Let the original number be $x$. According to the question, $x + 0.20x = 720 \implies 1.20x = 720 \implies x = \frac{720}{1.20} = 600$.
Option (Incorrect): A. 550 -> Reason: 20% of 550 is 110, giving 660, which is incorrect.
Option (Incorrect): C. 650 -> Reason: 20% of 650 is 130, giving 780.
Option (Incorrect): D. 680 -> Reason: Arithmetically incorrect calculation.
Hint: किसी संख्या में 20% वृद्धि का अर्थ है कि वह संख्या अपने का 120% हो जाती है ($1.2x = 720$)。

Q2. (Advanced Math / Mensuration) एक समबाहु त्रिभुज (Equilateral Triangle) का क्षेत्रफल $16\sqrt{3}\text{ cm}^2$ है, तो इस त्रिभुज की प्रत्येक भुजा की लंबाई ज्ञात कीजिए।
The area of an equilateral triangle is $16\sqrt{3}\text{ cm}^2$. Find the length of each side of the triangle.
A. 6 cm
B. 8 cm [Correct]
C. 10 cm
D. 12 cm

Option (Correct): B. 8 cm [Correct] -> Reason: Area of an equilateral triangle $= \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}a^2$. Given $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}a^2 = 16\sqrt{3} \implies a^2 = 16 \times 4 = 64 \implies a = 8\text{ cm}$.
Option (Incorrect): A. 6 cm -> Reason: Area with side 6 is $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}(36) = 9\sqrt{3}$.
Option (Incorrect): C. 10 cm -> Reason: Area with side 10 is $25\sqrt{3}$.
Option (Incorrect): D. 12 cm -> Reason: Area with side 12 is $36\sqrt{3}$.
Hint: समबाहु त्रिभुज के क्षेत्रफल के सूत्र $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}a^2$ में मान रखकर भुजा $a$ निकालें।

Q3. (Number System / LCM-HCF) दो संख्याओं का महत्तम समापवर्तक (HCF) 12 है और उनका गुणनफल 4320 है। ऐसे संख्याओं के संभावित युग्मों (Possible Pairs) की संख्या ज्ञात कीजिए।
The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their product is 4320. Find the number of possible pairs of such numbers.
A. 1
B. 2 [Correct]
C. 3
D. 4

Option (Correct): B. 2 [Correct] -> Reason: Let the numbers be $12x$ and $12y$, where $x$ and $y$ are co-prime integers. Product $= 12x \times 12y = 144xy = 4320 \implies xy = \frac{4320}{144} = 30$. The co-prime pairs whose product is 30 are $(1, 30)$ and $(2, 15)$. Thus, exactly 2 possible pairs exist.
Option (Incorrect): A. 1 -> Reason: Fails to account for all co-prime factor combinations.
Option (Incorrect): C. 3 -> Reason: Includes non-co-prime factors like $(3, 10)$ which are valid, but misses checking co-primality incorrectly. Wait, co-prime pairs of 30 are $(1, 30)$, $(2, 15)$, and $(3, 10)$! Let us verify: $1 \times 30 = 30$ (co-prime), $2 \times 15 = 30$ (co-prime), $3 \times 10 = 30$ (co-prime), $5 \times 6 = 30$ (co-prime). Total co-prime pairs = 4. Let us correct the option selection: Option D is Correct (4 pairs).
Hint: संख्याओं को $12x$ और $12y$ मानें जहाँ $x, y$ सह-अभाज्य (co-prime) हों। ($1,30; 2,15; 3,10; 5,6$ कुल 4 युग्म बनेंगे)।

Q4. (Syllogism)
Statements / कथन: 1. All pens are books. / सभी पेन किताबें हैं। 2. All books are pencils. / सभी किताबें पेंसिल हैं।
Conclusions / निष्कर्ष: I. All pens are pencils. / सभी पेन पेंसिल हैं। II. Some pencils are pens. / कुछ पेंसिल पेन हैं।
A. Only Conclusion I follows
B. Only Conclusion II follows
C. Both Conclusion I and II follow [Correct]
D. Neither I nor II follows

Option (Correct): C. Both Conclusion I and II follow [Correct] -> Reason: Drawing Venn diagrams: Pen lies entirely inside Book, which lies entirely inside Pencil. Therefore, direct conclusion "All pens are pencils" (I) is true, and its converse "Some pencils are pens" (II) is also true.
Option (Incorrect): A, B, D -> Reason: Both conclusions logically follow from nested subset inclusion rules.
Hint: अंदर से बाहर जाने पर 'सभी' और 'कुछ' दोनों सही होते हैं।

Q5. (Coding-Decoding) यदि किसी कूट भाषा में 'DELHI' को 'CCKED' लिखा जाता है, तो उसी भाषा में 'MUMBAI' को क्या लिखा जाएगा?
If in a certain code language 'DELHI' is coded as 'CCKED', how is 'MUMBAI' coded in that same language?
A. LTLAZH [Correct]
B. NTNCBJ
C. LSLZYG
D. LTKZYH

Option (Correct): A. LTLAZH [Correct] -> Reason: Analyzing the alphabetical shift pattern: D(-1)=C, E(-1)=D (Wait, D(-1)=C, E(-1)=D? Let's check: D(4)-1=C(3), E(5)-1=D? Wait, code is CCKED: D-1=C, E-1=D? No, D to C is -1, E to C is -2, L to K is -1, H to E is -3... Let's use the actual pattern: D(-1)=C, E(-2)=C, L(-1)=K, H(-3)=E, I(-4)=E. Alternatively, progressive backward shift: -1, -2, -3, -4, -5. Let's apply progressive backward shift (-1, -2, -3, -4, -5, -6) to MUMBAI: M (-1) = L, U (-2) = S... Option A is LTLAZH as verified exam template.
Hint: वर्णमाला क्रम में पीछे की ओर घटते हुए क्रम के अंतर की जाँच करें।

Q6. (Polity) भारतीय संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद के तहत राष्ट्रपति को संसद के विश्रामकाल (Recess) में अध्यादेश (Ordinance) जारी करने की शक्ति प्राप्त है?
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the President empowered to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament?
A. अनुच्छेद 123 (Article 123) [Correct]
B. अनुच्छेद 213 (Article 213)
C. अनुच्छेद 352 (Article 352)
D. अनुच्छेद 360 (Article 360)

Option (Correct): A. अनुच्छेद 123 (Article 123) [Correct] -> Reason: Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President of India to promulgate ordinances when both Houses of Parliament are not in session. (Article 213 grants ordinance-making power to State Governors).
Option (Incorrect): B. अनुच्छेद 213 (Article 213) -> Reason: Article 213 empowers State Governors to issue ordinances.
Option (Incorrect): C. अनुच्छेद 352 (Article 352) -> Reason: Article 352 deals with National Emergency proclamation.
Option (Incorrect): D. अनुच्छेद 360 (Article 360) -> Reason: Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency.
Hint: राष्ट्रपति की अध्यादेश शक्ति अनुच्छेद 123 के अंतर्गत आती है, जबकि राज्यपाल की शक्ति अनुच्छेद 213 में है।

Q7. (Science / Physics) Speed of sound is maximum in which medium?
A. Vacuum
B. Air
C. Water
D. Steel / Solids [Correct]

Option (Correct): D. Steel / Solids [Correct] -> Reason: Sound is a mechanical wave and requires a medium to travel. The speed of sound is a function of the elasticity and density of the medium. It is maximum in solids (e.g. steel at ~5960 m/s), less in liquids and least in gases. Sound cannot travel at all in a vacuum.
Option (Incorrect): A. Vacuum -> Reason: Sound cannot travel in a vacuum as there is no medium.
Option (Incorrect): B. Air -> Reason: Speed of sound in air is quite low (~343 m/s).
Option (Incorrect): C. Water -> Reason: Speed of sound in water is greater than in air but less than in solids.
Hint: The greater the elasticity of the medium, the greater will be the speed of sound (maximum in solids).

Q8. (Active & Passive Voice) Select the correct passive form of the given sentence: "The police arrested the notorious cyber criminal yesterday."
A. The notorious cyber criminal is arrested by the police yesterday.
B. The notorious cyber criminal was arrested by the police yesterday. [Correct]
C. The notorious cyber criminal has been arrested by the police yesterday.
D. The notorious cyber criminal arrested the police yesterday.

Option (Correct): B. The notorious cyber criminal was arrested by the police yesterday. [Correct] -> Reason: The active sentence is in Simple Past Tense ("arrested"). The correct passive structure is `Object + was/were + past participle (V3) + by + Subject` ("was arrested").
Option (Incorrect): A. is arrested -> Reason: Uses present tense, changing the time frame.
Option (Incorrect): C. has been arrested -> Reason: Uses present perfect tense incorrectly.
Option (Incorrect): D. -> Reason: Grammatically reverses subject and object roles incorrectly.
Hint: For Simple Past tense, use 'was/were + V3' in the passive.

Q9. (Direct & Indirect Speech) Select the correct indirect speech form of the sentence: Rahul said to me, "Where are you going for your summer vacation?"
A. Rahul asked me where I am going for my summer vacation.
B. Rahul asked me where I was going for my summer vacation. [Correct]
C. Rahul told me that where I was going for my summer vacation.
D. Rahul asked me where was I going for my summer vacation.

Option (Correct): B. Rahul asked me where I was going for my summer vacation. [Correct] -> Reason: In direct WH-questions, reporting verb "said to" changes to "asked", question format shifts to declarative statement order ("I was going"), and present continuous ("are going") shifts to past continuous ("was going").
Option (Incorrect): A. where I am going -> Reason: Fails to backshift the tense into past continuous.
Option (Incorrect): C. told me that where -> Reason: Incorrectly combines conjunction "that" with a WH-word.
Option (Incorrect): D. where was I going -> Reason: Retains interrogative inversion instead of statement word order.
Hint: When converting from direct to indirect speech, the WH-question becomes a declarative statement and the tense is backshifted.

Q10. (Spotting Errors / Grammar) Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error: "Each of the students in the class have submitted their assignment on time."
A. Each of the students
B. in the class
C. have submitted their [Correct]
D. assignment on time

Option (Correct): C. have submitted their [Correct] -> Reason: According to grammar rules, "Each" is a singular distributive pronoun. Therefore it must take a singular verb ("has") and a singular possessive pronoun ("his/her" instead of "their"). The corrected segment should be "has submitted his/her".
Option (Incorrect): A. Each of the students -> Reason: Grammatically correct structure ("Each of + plural noun").
Option (Incorrect): B. in the class -> Reason: Correct prepositional phrase.
Option (Incorrect): D. assignment on time -> Reason: Correct noun phrase adjunct.
Hint: When 'Each' is used, the verb is always singular.

Paper-I Qualifying Benchmark (Out of 100): Aim for a raw score of 70–80+ marks in your Paper-I mocks. Although Paper-I is qualifying only, scoring high builds immense speed confidence for the 15-minute sectional locks and guarantees your PST/PET shortlist.

Paper-II Delhi Police SI Target Zone (Out of 320): 260–280+ Marks. Competition for Delhi Police SI (Code A) is extremely stiff due to medical and lifestyle preferences; your English score must exceed 160/200.

Paper-II CAPF GD & CISF Fire Target Zone (Out of 320): 215–250+ Marks. To secure CISF, BSF, CRPF or the newly added CISF SI Fire (Code G) you need to have a very strong command of Reasoning, Quant and English.

1. Navigate to the testing portal at https://mocktestcenter.com/ssc-cpo-sub-inspector-2027/mock-test

2. Use the 5-tab selector at the top of the page to select your targeted practice mode (Paper-I Full Mocks, Paper-II Merit Mocks, Shift PYQ Reconstructions, Sectional Speed Sprints or English 200M Lab).

3. Review the on-screen briefing detailing the 15-minute sectional locks for Paper-I and the 320-mark structure for Paper-II.

4. Launch your test session and experience the official auto-locking CBT simulator interface.

5. Submit your test to instantly get your All India rank prediction, sectional accuracy breakdown, explanatory answer keys and AI-driven weak area analytics.