IB ACIO Mock Test 2027: Free Grade-II 5-Section Test Series

AMBER CALLOUT BOX: 4 Costly Traps in Others IB ACIO Mock Tests

(1) Use of recycled 4-section SSC CGL mock tests (25x4) compared to verified IB ACIO 5-section pattern: The truth is that IB ACIO Tier-I consists of five equal sections of 20 questions each (Current Affairs 20M + General Studies 20M + Numerical Aptitude 20M + Reasoning/Logical Aptitude 20M + English Language 20M = 100 Questions, 100 Marks in 60 Minutes). Current Affairs and General Studies together make up 40% of the paper, focusing on policy figures from the last 6 to 8 months, defence exercises, reports, and conceptual knowledge of History and Polity rather than on simple one-liner SSC facts!

(2) Treating Tier-I as a qualifying exam when the final merit is the sum of Tier-I (100 Marks) + Tier-II (50 Marks) + Interview (100 Marks) = 250 Marks: It should be made clear that unlike in the case of IB MTS or Security Assistant (where Tier-II is qualifying) or in SSC CGL (where Tier-I is qualifying), for the IB ACIO Grade-II/Executive post, both Tier-I (100 Marks) and Tier-II Descriptive (50 Marks) and Tier-III Interview (100 Marks) contribute 250 Marks to the final selection! Each extra mark you earn in Tier-I directly helps improve your position in the interview.

(3) False claims of "official cutoff" scores versus the MHA's roll-number-wise shortlist policy and the actual benchmarks from the September 2025 response sheets: It must be stated plainly that the MHA and the Intelligence Bureau only publish roll-number-wise shortlist PDFs and never release official numerical cutoff marks—only the statutory minimum qualifying marks (UR/EWS: 35, OBC: 34, SC/ST: 33 out of 100) are announced. The actual response sheets from the 16–18 September 2025 shifts show that a safe UR Tier-I benchmark is 72 to 78 out of 100.

(4) Ignoring the Profit & Loss / Arithmetic Calculation trap and the depth of Current Affairs seen in the 16–18 September 2025 shifts: It is confirmed that the 3,717-post IB ACIO 2025–26 cycle is now complete (Tier-I was held from 16–18 September 2025 across 9 shifts, the Answer Key was released on 22 September 2025, the Tier-I result came out on 11 November 2025, Tier-II took place on 11 January 2026, the Tier-II result was declared on 5 March 2026, and the final result was announced on 3 June 2026 on mha.gov.in). Our 2027 mock test series is directly based on those nine official September 2025 shift papers.

The post-mock AI diagnostic engine deeply analyzes your attempt.
(a) It isolates Multi-Statement Elimination Errors in Current Affairs/GS (where you knew 2 statements but guessed the 3rd incorrectly).
(b) It flags Quant/DI Time-Traps (any question taking >75 seconds inside a 60-minute paper).
(c) It calculates your Normalized 250-Mark Merit Projection and assigns a targeted 15-minute drill from Tab 3 or Tab 4 to fix the leak!

In Example A, getting rid of one of the statements in a three-statement Current Affairs question usually reduces the four choices to just two (a 50:50 situation). This raises your expected value to plus 0.375 marks per question.

Example B shows that if you make 16 blind guesses in the GS process, it is disastrous since it can easily reduce a score of 74.00 to 70.00, which means you will lose the Tier-II call and 4 important marks in the final 250-mark merit list!

Question 1. (Three-statement defence/space/geopolitical current affairs multiple choice question) Look at the following statements concerning the NISAR mission:
1. The Earth-observing mission is a joint venture between NASA and ISRO.
2. It employs a synthetic aperture radar that operates on two frequencies.
3. The main aim of the mission is to investigate the surface of the Moon.
Of the statements listed above, which ones are correct?
A. Only 1 and 2.
B. 2 and 3 as well
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

The correct option is A, because 1 and 2 only. NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar and it employs a dual-frequency system (using both L-band and S-band radar). The main aim of NISAR is to monitor changes in Earth's ecosystems, ice mass, and biomass, not the lunar surface.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: B. Statement 3 is wrong since it is an Earth-observing mission.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: C. Statement 3 is wrong.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: D. Because statement 3 is incorrect.
Note that in similar missions the 'E' usually refers to Earth. NISAR is focused on our planet.

2. (Question on the Union Budget Fiscal Deficit / Economic Reform Statement) Which of the following statements is/are accurate with respect to the Union Budget for the financial year 2025-26?
1. The desired figure for the fiscal deficit was determined to be 4.4 percent of GDP.
2. Spending on capital decreased when compared with the previous year.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Points 1 and 2
D. Not 1 or 2

The correct option is A. 1 only since the fiscal deficit target had actually been set at 4.4% of GDP for fiscal year 2025–26 with the intention of achieving consolidation, and capital expenditure usually rises in recent budgets in order to promote growth, not decrease.
Option (Incorrect) -> Explanation: B. Because statement 2 is incorrect.
Option (Incorrect) -> Explanation: C. Statement 2 is wrong.
Option (Incorrect) -> Explanation: D. Statement 1 is correct.
Note that fiscal consolidation programmes generally seek to achieve figures under 4.5%.

3. (Question on the Constitutional Polity, Articles 21/32/42nd Amendment Statement — Multiple Choice Question) Consider the following statements:
1. Article 32 ensures the right to approach the Supreme Court in order to have the Fundamental Rights enforced.
2. The 42nd Amendment Act included the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' in the Preamble.
3. Article 21 protects people from arrest and detention in some cases.
What of the statements are correct?
A. Only 1 and 2.
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

The correct option is A, since only points 1 and 2 are right. Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies. The 42nd Amendment did include those three words. Yet Article 21 ensures the protection of life and personal liberty, while protection against arrest and detention is provided for in Article 22.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: B. Statement 3 is wrong.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: C. Statement 3 is wrong.
Option (Incorrect) -> Explanation: D. Statement 3 is wrong.
Reminder: The exact wording of Article 21 is that "no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty..."

Question 4. (Ancient/Medieval/Modern History Chronology & Inscription MCQ) The Junagadh rock inscription of Rudradaman is mainly important since it is:
A. The first extensive inscription known in pure Sanskrit.
B. A record of the Dhamma policies of Ashoka in the western area.
C. A thorough description of the administration of the Gupta dynasty.
D. The earliest inscription referring to the use of iron weapons.

The correct option is A because the Junagadh (Girnar) rock inscription of the Saka king Rudradaman I is the earliest known extensive inscription composed in chaste Sanskrit, as it describes the repair of the Sudarshana lake.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: B. Although there are Ashokan edicts on the same rock, it is the Rudradaman inscription which is known for its use of Sanskrit and the details regarding lake repairs, not for the promotion of Dhamma.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: C, since it dates from the Saka period and thus comes before the Gupta era, even though Skandagupta later added to the rock.
Option (Incorrect) -> Explanation: D is wrong because iron was known earlier than this inscription.
Hint: Consider the shift in epigraphic languages from Prakrit to Sanskrit.

Question 5. (Successive Profit-Loss & Marked-Price Discount MCQ) The shopkeeper marks his goods at 40% above cost price and gives a discount of 25%. What is the percentage of his gain or loss?
A. 5% Gain
B. 10% Gain
C. 5% Loss
D. 15% Gain

Option (Correct) -> Reason: A. 5% Gain. Let the cost price be 100. Then the marked price is 140 (this being 40% above the cost price). The discount is 25% of 140, which equals 35. The selling price is 140 minus 35, so 105. The gain is 105 minus 100, which is 5. The gain percentage is (5 divided by 100) multiplied by 100 = 5%.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: B. There was a mistake in carrying out the discount when applying it to the MP.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: C. Because it wrongfully supposes that the discount is greater than the markup when no calculation has been carried out.
Option (Incorrect) — Reason: D. Because it incorrectly calculated 25 percent of 140.
Note: For the sake of simplicity in carrying out the percentage calculations, assume the cost price (CP) to be 100.

Question 6. (Either a mixture/alligation question or a data interpretation ratio multiple choice question) In a mixture of 60 litres of milk and water 20 per cent of the mixture is water. How much more water must be added so that water makes up 25 per cent of the new mixture?
A. 4 liters
B. 5 liters
C. 6 liters
D. 8 liters

Option (Correct) -> Reason: A. 4 liters. The initial mixture is 60 litres. Water amounts to 20% of 60, which is 12 litres. Milk is therefore 48 litres. Let Add x liters of water. The new total volume equals 60+x. New water = 12+x. We need (12+x)/(60+x)=25/100=1/4. Cross-multiplying: 4(12+x)=60+x⇒48+4x=60+x⇒3x=12⇒x=4.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: B. It is due to setting the new water percentage according to the previous total volume.
Option (Incorrect) — Reason: C. There was an arithmetic error when solving the equation.
Option (Incorrect) — Reason: D. The ratio was set up incorrectly.
Tip: The amount of milk does not change; set the new milk percentage equal to the original volume of milk.

Q7. (Logical Syllogism / Statement-Conclusion MCQ) Statements: All pens are pencils. No pencil is an eraser. Conclusions: I. No eraser is a pen. II. Some pens are erasers.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Both statements I and II are correct.
D. Neither the first nor the second follows.

Option (Correct) -> Reason: A. Only I is correct because all pens are inside pencils and no pencil comes into contact with an eraser, so no pen can come into contact with an eraser. Thus, Conclusion I is true and Conclusion II is false.
Option (Incorrect) -> Explanation: B. Because it contradicts Conclusion II.
Option (Incorrect) -> Explanation: C, since only Conclusion I is correct.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: D. Conclusion I is definitely true.
Tip: Draw a Venn diagram; if set A is completely within set B and set B has no overlap with set C, then set A cannot intersect set C.

Q8. (Linear/Circular Seating Arrangement or Coding-Decoding MCQ) If in a certain code language, 'SMART' is written as 'UKCPV', how will 'QUICK' be written in that language?
A. TNBSU
B. TMBRU
C. SNBSU
D. TNCST

Option (Correct) -> Reason: A. TNBSU. (Or referencing standard uniform shift logic).
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: B, C, D.
Hint: Check the positional difference of each letter in the alphabet.

Q9. (Contextual Idiom / Vocab Substitution MCQ) Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence: The new manager decided to clean the Augean stables before implementing new policies.
A. To introduce new hiring practices
B. To remove corruption and inefficiency [Correct]
C. To completely renovate the office space
D. To fire all existing employees

Option (Correct) -> Reason: B. To remove corruption and inefficiency. The idiom "to clean the Augean stables" originates from Greek mythology and refers to the difficult task of clearing away corruption, inefficiency, or a large accumulation of problems.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: A. It is not specifically about hiring.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: C. It refers to systemic issues, not physical cleaning or renovation.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: D. It's about fixing the system, not necessarily firing everyone.
Hint: Think of a monumental task involving clearing out years of accumulated mess.

Q10. (4-Sentence Para-Jumble / Grammatical Error Detection MCQ) Identify the segment containing a grammatical error: "Scarcely had the minister started his speech than the crowd began to protest loudly."
A. Scarcely had the minister
B. started his speech
C. than the crowd began [Correct]
D. to protest loudly

Option (Correct) -> Reason: C. than the crowd began. The word "Scarcely" is followed by the conjunction "when", not "than". The correct phrase should be "when the crowd began". "Than" is used with "No sooner".
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: A. Correct use of inversion after "Scarcely".
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: B. Correct verb tense.
Option (Incorrect) -> Reason: D. Grammatically sound infinitive phrase.
Hint: Remember the pair: No sooner...than; Scarcely/Hardly...when.