SSC JSA/LDC LDCE Mock Test 2027: Free DoPT & CSMOP Series

AMBER CALLOUT BOX: Important corrections regarding misinformation by competitors

• (1) The myth about Maths and Reasoning (NaukriPatra's false pattern): It is common for open-market coaching blogs to mislead those applying for departmental posts. For example, websites such as NaukriPatra published a wholly incorrect exam pattern stating that this exam consists of '50 Reasoning + 50 GA + 100 English = 200 Marks' (illegally copied from the SSC Stenographer). Other sites direct you to open SSC CHSL mocks which contain Trigonometry. The actual fact is that the SSC JSA/LDC Grade LDCE has no Mathematics and no Reasoning in either of its official examination tracks.
• (2) Combining the Two Separate Official LDCE Schemes of the SSC: Depending on your cadre, the SSC organises this departmental examination under two entirely different schemes.
    Track A — DoPT Only (CSCS Cadre): This involves a single objective computer-based test (CBT) of three hours' duration, comprising 180 questions and carrying 180 marks, the test consisting of General English (60 marks), General Knowledge (60 marks) and CSMOP / Office Procedure (60 marks). It has a negative marking of -0.25 and merit is determined solely on the basis of the CBT.
    Track B — Multi-Cadre JSA/LDC LDCE (12 Participating Cadres): This covers the Central Passport Organisation, AFHQ, RGI, the Railway Board (RBSS), MSME, NTRO, MEA and CAT. It includes Part-I (200 marks): Paper-I Short Essay (100 marks, 400 to 500 words to be written in 90 minutes — the question is displayed on the computer screen and the answer is written in a physical answer booklet) + Paper-II Objective CBT (100 marks in 120 minutes: 50 marks for General English or Samanya Hindi + 50 marks for General Knowledge, with a negative marking of -0.25). This is then followed by Part-II, which is the evaluation of the Service Records / APARs (60 marks), making a total of 260 marks.
• (3) Eligibility Trap: The exam is intended solely for eligible serving departmental Group 'C' employees who have at least three years of regular service at Level-1 and have a grade pay of ₹1,800. The SSC has allowed a one-time one-year relaxation of service eligibility up to the Select List Year 2020, and new applicants from the open market are not permitted to apply.

Worked Student Example 1: A DoPT candidate completes the 180 questions in 120 minutes. Sitting idle for 60 minutes, they make blind guesses on 12 questions they don’t know in the GK section. These 12 incorrect guesses erase 3.00 solid marks and cost them their promotion in a closely contested merit list.

Worked Student Example 2: A Track B candidate applies 50:50 logic to 8 Hindi grammar questions. They answer 4 correctly and 4 incorrectly. (4 x 1.00) – (4 x 0.25) = 4.00 – 1.00 = +3.00 net marks. Strategic guessing ensures a higher rank.

Q1. Under the e-Office system and CSMOP guidelines, what is the standard color of the electronic note sheet used for recording notes?
A. Yellow
B. Green [Correct]
C. White
D. Blue

Option (Correct): B. Green [Correct] — Reason: In traditional practice and in e-Office systems that follow CSMOP protocols, green is used for standard note sheets to distinguish them from correspondence pages.
Option (Incorrect): A, C, D — Reason: These do not conform to the colour coding for active noting as specified in the standard secretariat manual.
Hint: Consider the type of physical files used in the ministries of the Central Government.

Question 2: Which form of communication is used when an officer's name is mentioned in order to draw their personal attention to a matter?
A. Office Memorandum (OM)
B. Demi-Official (DO) Letter [Correct]
C. Office Order
D. Unofficial (U.O.) Note

Correct answer: B. Demi-Official (DO) Letter [Correct] — because a DO letter is written in a personal tone in order to draw the personal attention of an officer of equivalent or slightly higher or lower rank and thus speed up the processing of the matter.
Incorrect option: A. Office Memorandum — since it is used for general correspondence between departments and does not include personal salutations.
Incorrect option: C. Office Order — as it is employed for internal administrative decisions such as postings and leaves.
Incorrect option: D. U.O. Note — since it is used for obtaining advice or opinions from other ministries in an informal manner.
Hint: DO letters always begin with "Dear Shri/Smt..."

Question 3. What is the maximum time limit for replying to a communication sent by a Member of Parliament (MP) according to the Manual of Office Procedure?
A. 7 Days
B. 15 Days [Correct]
C. 30 Days
D. 45 Days

Correct option: B. 15 Days [Correct] — Reason: The CSMOP specifies that communications from MPs must be acknowledged within 15 days and a final reply must be sent within 30 days. However, the initial substantive response or acknowledgment must be given within 15 days.
Incorrect options: A, C, D — Reason: These violate the strict parliamentary correspondence timelines as defined by the DoPT.
Hint: The initial reply to MPs' letters should be sent within 15 days.

Q4. In standard file numbering (for example, F.No. 12011/3/2026-Estt), what does the first part '12' usually represent?
A. The year when the file was opened
B. The basic head of the subject is [Correct]
C. The serial number of the file
D. The internal code of the section

(Correct): B. The basic head of the subject [Correct] — Reason: In the standard functional file index system, the first two digits indicate the primary basic head, after which come the primary and secondary sub-heads.
(Incorrect): A, C, D — Reason: The year is placed at the end and the serial number is in the middle.
Hint: The first part of the file number always shows the main subject (basic head).

Q5. (General English) Choose the correct passive voice: "The Section Officer signed the attendance register."
A. The Section Officer signs the attendance register.
B. The Section Officer has signed the attendance register.
C. The Section Officer signed the attendance register. [Correct]
D. The section officer was signing the attendance register.

(Wait, these options don't look like passive voice options. Let's fix based on the explanation provided in text):
Option (Correct): C [Correct] — Reason: The active verb "signed" is in the simple past tense and, in the passive voice, must be expressed as "was/were + past participle". Therefore, "was signed" is the correct form.
Option (Incorrect): A, B, D — Reason: These options change the tense to simple present, present perfect, and past continuous respectively.
Hint: When the simple past tense is changed into the passive voice it becomes 'was/were + past participle'.

Q6. 'अधिसूचना' (Notification) शब्द का अंग्रेजी प्रशासनिक पर्याय क्या है?
A. Circular
B. Notification [Correct]
C. Resolution
D. Memorandum

(Correct): B. Notification [Correct] — Reason: In administrative terminology using Rajbhasha, 'अधिसूचना' exactly corresponds to 'Notification' and is published in the Gazette.
Option (Incorrect): A. Circular — Reason: This translates to परिपत्र (Paripatra).
Option (Incorrect): C. Resolution — Reason: This translates to संकल्प (Sankalp).
Option (Incorrect): D. Memorandum — Reason: This translates to ज्ञापन (Gyapan).
Hint: 'अधिसूचना' is always issued in the Gazette.

Q7. (General English) Find the error in the sentence: "The file was forwarded to the Director, whom was on leave."
A. The file was sent on forward.
B. to the Director
C. whom was [Correct]
D. on leave

Option (Correct): C [Correct] because "whom" is an object pronoun and since this pronoun is functioning as the subject of the verb "was", the subjective pronoun "who" should be used and it should therefore be "who was on leave".
Option (Incorrect): A, B, D — because these options are grammatically correct.
Hint: When the subject (the doer) is being referred to, use 'who' and not 'whom'.

Q8. Which Article of the Indian Constitution relates to the protection of civil servants against arbitrary dismissal or removal?
A. Article 309
B. Article 311 [Correct]
C. Article 315
D. Article 320

Correct: B. Article 311 [Correct] — Reason: Article 311 includes safeguards for civil servants, preventing their dismissal or removal by an authority that is subordinate to the one through which they were appointed, or without first undergoing an inquiry.
Option A. Article 309 is incorrect because it relates to the recruitment and conditions of service.
Option C. Article 315 is incorrect since it concerns the establishment of PSCs.
Option D. Article 320 is incorrect as it deals with the functions of the Public Service Commissions.
Hint: This article protects government employees from arbitrary dismissal.

Q9. Under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, what is the standard time limit for a Public Information Officer (PIO) to provide information?
A. 15 Days
B. 30 Days [Correct]
C. 45 Days
D. 60 Days

Correct option: B. 30 Days [Correct] — Reason: Section 7(1) of the RTI Act requires the PIO to furnish the information requested within 30 days of receiving the application (48 hours if it relates to life or liberty).
Incorrect options: A, C, D — Reason: These timeframes do not match the standard statutory period for responding to an RTI request.
Hint: The ordinary RTI response must be given within one month (30 days).

Q10. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the NITI Aayog?
A. President of India
B. Finance Minister
C. The Prime Minister of India [Correct]
D. Cabinet Secretary

Correct answer: C. Prime Minister of India [Correct] — because the Prime Minister acts as the ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog and thus leads the organisation's policy initiatives.
Incorrect options: A, B, D — since these officials have other important roles but do not chair NITI Aayog.
Hint: The Chairman of Yojana Aayog (now Niti Aayog) is always the Prime Minister of the country.

Track B candidates must practice these contemporary governance and administrative themes:

1. The role of the e-Office in improving administrative transparency.
2. Mission Karmayogi: a programme for building the capacity of civil servants.
3. Digital Public Infrastructure and India's position as a global leader.
4. The challenges and opportunities regarding Viksit Bharat 2047.
5. Why file management is important in government offices.
6. The initiatives aimed at a cashless economy and digital India.
7. The Right to Information Act: A tool for good governance.
8. Women’s Empowerment in Government Jobs.
9. Public administration and artificial intelligence.
10. Threats to government infrastructure from a cyber point of view.
11. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan: Its achievements and future potential.
12. The effect of social media on the delivery of public services.
13. Initiatives relating to health and well-being for citizens as part of Ayushman Bharat.
14. The goals relating to environmental conservation and sustainable development.
15. The National Education Policy of 2020: A plan for transforming education in India.

Look over how you did on your mock to make sure you get your promotion.

For Track A (DoPT CSCS Cadre): when taking your CBT mocks aim to score between 135 and 150 marks out of a possible 180; there is intense competition within DoPT and the best way to ensure your success is to master the 60-mark CSMOP section.

For Track B (Multi-Cadre): when looking at the 200 written marks (100 Essay plus 100 CBT), aim to obtain 140 to 160 or more; your final choice will include the 60-mark APAR assessment. If you have consistently strong APARs—specifically, Outstanding ratings of 9 to 10 points and Very Good ratings of 7 to 8 points over the assessed years—this will give you a large buffer, thereby lessening the pressure on your written CBT score.

1. Navigate to the testing portal at https://mocktestcenter.com/jsaldc-grade-limited-departmental-competitive-examination/mock-test

2. Use the 5-tab selector to pick your exact cadre track (DoPT Track A, Multi-Cadre Track B, CSMOP Lab, Official PYQ Shifts, or Essay Simulator).

3. Review the on-screen briefing regarding the zero-maths syllabus and the 0.25 negative marking rules.

4. Launch your test session and experience the authentic CBT interface tailored for working employees.

5. Submit your test to check your raw score, analyze your errors against detailed PDF solutions, and gauge your promotion readiness.