UPSSSC ANM Mock Test 2027 | Free Female Health Worker Tests

URGENT CORRECTION / AMBER CALLOUT BOX (Warning against competitor misinformation)

• (a) Misleading Coaching Syllabi: Numerous coaching institutes are misleading UPSSSC ANM Mains aspirants by advising them to study General Hindi, General English grammar and Class 10 NCERT History. They go so far as to publish machine translated translation errors such as "The moon and stars of pregnancy" and "Care during normal menstruation" rather than the correct "Signs & symptoms of pregnancy" and "Care during normal labour". The UPSSSC ANM Mains exam as per Rule 8(1) is a 100 question, 100 mark Pure Clinical & Community Nursing paper across 38 official INC topics with absolutely NO History, English or Maths questions.
• (b) Pay Scale & Interview Myths: Various unverified job portals falsely list the UPSSSC ANM as a "Pay Level-7" post with an "Interview stage". UPSSSC ANM is a 7th CPC Pay Level-3 post (₹21,700 – ₹69,100, Grade Pay ₹2,000) with NO interview at all. The contractual UP NHM ANMs on the other hand can receive up to 15 experience bonus marks (3 marks per completed year of service).
• (c) The 24th August 2026 Cutoff Shock: Aspirants must be aware of the massive jump in the General DV cutoff from 50.00 (in 2022) to 61.75 (in 2026), the EWS cutoff from 3.00 to 55.00 and the SC cutoff (56.75) overtaking the OBC cutoff (55.25) which proves that low scoring strategies will no longer work.

Under the UPSSSC Health Worker service rules, a contractual ANM Sister working under the Uttar Pradesh National Health Mission (UP NHM) is entitled to 3 bonus marks for each completed year of contractual service, with a maximum cap of 15 marks (i.e. 5 years). As the final merit is out of 100 marks, the contractual ANM with 15 bonus marks has a massive competitive advantage. As such, a fresh ANM candidate without NHM experience will have to score 68 to 72+ raw marks in our mock tests to be in a safe position in the final merit list.

• All 4 Options Intact (Blind Guess): Expected Value = -0.0625 EV per question (Mathematically neutral to negative – Skip).
• 1 Distractor Eliminated: Expected Value = +0.083 EV (Favourable odds if clinical reasoning rules out one of the wrong options).
• 2 Distractors Eliminated (50:50 between similar clinical terms): Expected Value = +0.375 EV (Highly profitable — Must attempt).

Q1. Midwifery & Obstetrics
Question: During the first stage of labour (the active phase), what is the standard time lag established on a partograph from the Alert Line to the Action Line?
A. 2 hours / 2 घंटे
B. 4 hours / 4 घंटे [Correct]
C. 6 hours / 6 घंटे
D. 8 hours / 8 घंटे

Option (Correct): B. 4 hours / 4 घंटे -> Reason: The WHO partograph standard is that the Action Line is parallel to and 4 hours to the right of the Alert Line. Crossing the Action Line indicates that labour is prolonged and requires immediate referral or intervention.
Option (Incorrect): A. 2 hours / 2 घंटे -> Reason: Two hours is incorrect as the intervals for cervical dilation plotting or specific descent evaluations do not establish a 2 hour action boundary.
Option (Incorrect): C. 6 hours / 6 घंटे -> Reason: Six hours exceeds the standard WHO partograph time lag limit and would be considered unsafe in the context of obstructed labour if intervention is not given.
Option (Incorrect): D. 8 hours / 8 घंटे -> Reason: Eight hours is clinically unsafe and directly contradicts the standard obstetric monitoring guidelines.
Hint: Remember that the Action Line is always drawn exactly 4 hours to the right of the Alert Line and parallel to it.

Q2. Midwifery & Obstetrics
उत्तर: सक्रिय प्रसवोत्तर रक्तस्राव प्रबंधन के तहत बच्चे के जन्म के तुरंत बाद ऑक्सीटोसिन की अनुशंसित खुराक 10 आईयू (इंटरनेशनल यूनिट) है, जिसे अंतःशिरा (iv) या अंतःमांसपेशी (IM) मार्ग से दिया जाता है ।
What is the recommended dose and route of oxytocin to be given immediately post partum under AMTSL?
A. 5 IU Intravenous (IV)
B. 10 IU Intramuscular (IM) [Correct]
C. 20 IU Subcutaneous (SC)
D. 10 IU Oral tablet

Option (Correct): B. 10 IU Intramuscular (IM) [Correct] -> Reason: National health guidelines state that 10 International Units (IU) of Oxytocin IM must be given within one minute of the birth of the baby to prevent postpartum haemorrhage (PPH).
Option (Incorrect): A. 5 IU Intravenous (IV) -> Reason: IV oxytocin is used in managed infusions. The standard AMTSL protocol is 10 IU IM (intramuscular) for rapid and safe absorption by the field ANM.
Option (Incorrect): C. 20 IU Subcutaneous (SC) -> Reason: 20 IU is an overdose for routine AMTSL and the SC route is ineffective for inducing rapid uterine contraction.
Option (Incorrect): D. 10 IU Oral tablet -> Reason: Oxytocin is a peptide hormone and would be destroyed by the digestive enzymes if given orally. It has to be given parenterally.
संकेत: AMTSL में बच्चे के पैदा होते ही जांघ की मांसपेशी में 10 IU ऑक्सीटोसिन IM दिया जाता है।

Q3. Midwifery & Obstetrics
उत्तर: प्रसवपूर्व ईक्लेम्पसिया से पीड़ित गर्भवती महिला में दौरे रोकने के लिए मैग्नीशियम सल्फेट का प्रायः प्रिचार्ड रेजिमेन इस्तेमाल होता है। इसका विशिष्ट विषहरण एंटीडोट कैल्शियम ग्लूकोनेट है।
Which regimen of magnesium sulphate is used for the control of seizures in eclampsia and what is its specific antidote?
A. Pritchard Regimen & Calcium Gluconate [Correct]
B. Parkland Formula & Atropine
C. WHO ORS & Naloxone
D. Ringer Lactate & Adrenaline

Option (Correct): A. Pritchard Regimen & Calcium Gluconate [Correct] -> Reason: The Pritchard regimen (loading dose IV/IM followed by maintenance IM doses) is the standard in India for eclampsia and 10% Calcium Gluconate IV is kept at the bedside as the specific antidote for magnesium toxicity.
Option (Incorrect): B. Parkland formula & Atropine -> Reason: Parkland formula is for fluid resuscitation in the burn patient, not for the management of eclampsia.
Option (Incorrect): C. WHO ORS & Naloxone -> Reason: ORS is for dehydration and Naloxone is an opioid reversal agent.
Option (Incorrect): D. Ringer's Lactate & Adrenaline -> Reason: You give IV fluids, adrenaline is for anaphylaxis not for MgSO4 toxicity.
Hint: मैग्नीशियम सल्फेट टॉक्सिसिटी में अगर श्वसन दर कम हो जाए तो तुरंत 10% कैल्शियम ग्लूकोनेट स्लो IV दें।

Q4. Immunization & Child Health
सार्वभौमिक टीकाकरण कार्यक्रम (UIP) के तहत डिप्थीरिया, पर्टुसिस और टिटनेस (dpt), टिटनेस टॉक्सॉइड (TT) और हेपेटाइटिस-बी (Hepatitis-B) वे फ्रीज-सेंसिटिव वैक्सीन हैं जिन्हें फ्रीज नहीं करना चाहिए, वरना उनकी शक्ति खत्म हो जाती है ।
Under UIP which vaccine is freeze sensitive and must never be frozen as freezing destroys its potency?
A. Polio (OPV)
B. BCG
C. Hepatitis B / DPT / TT (Adsorbed vaccines) [Correct]
D. Measles / MMR

Option (Correct): C. Hepatitis B / DPT / TT (Adsorbed vaccines) [Correct] -> Reason: Adsorbed vaccines with aluminium adjuvant (Hep B, DPT, Pentavalent, TT) can easily freeze at 0°C or below and this will lead to particulate formation which permanently destroys the potency.
Option (Incorrect): A. Polio (OPV) -> Reason: The oral polio vaccine is very heat sensitive but is freeze tolerant (can be stored in freezer compartments).
Option (Incorrect): B. BCG -> Reason: The lyophilised BCG vaccine is stored in the freezer or cold chain compartments (i.e. in the cold chain) without any risk of freezing damage prior to reconstitution.
Option (Incorrect): D. Measles/MMR -> Reason: Live attenuated viral vaccines (like Measles) are freeze tolerant and are stored in the freezer.
Hint: 'shake test' का इस्तेमाल यह पता करने के लिए होता है कि adsorbed वैक्सीन फ्रीज हुई है या नहीं।

Q5. Immunization & Child Health
प्रश्न: डायरिया से पीड़ित 6 माह से कम उम्र के शिशु के लिए WHO द्वारा सुझाए गए कम-ऑस्मोलैरिटी ओआरएस की कुल ऑस्मोलैरिटी कितनी होती है?
What is the total osmolarity of the WHO recommended low osmolarity ORS for children with acute diarrhoea?
A. 311 mOsm/L
B. 245 mOsm/L [Correct]
C. 400 mOsm/L
D. 150 mOsm/L

Option (Correct): B. 245 mOsm/L [Correct] -> Reason: WHO and UNICEF reduced the osmolarity of ORS from 311 mOsm/L to 245 mOsm/L in order to reduce stool output and vomiting and thus improve clinical efficacy in the case of acute dehydration.
Option (Incorrect): A. 311 mOsm/L -> Reason: 311 mOsm/L was the old standard high osmolarity ORS formula which has been globally superseded.
Option (Incorrect): C. 400 mOsm/L -> Reason: 400 mOsm/L is ridiculously hypertonic and would make the osmotic diarrhoea worse.
Option (Incorrect): D. 150 mOsm/L -> Reason: 150 mOsm/L is too hypotonic and doesn't have the right sodium glucose cotransport balance.
संकेत: नई कम-ऑस्मोलैरिटी ORS पैकेट को 1 लीटर साफ पानी में घोलते हैं। इसमें कुल ऑस्मोलैरिटी 245 मिली-ऑस्मोल प्रति लीटर होती है।

Q6. Communicable Diseases
उत्तर: इन्हें कॉप्लिक स्पॉट्स (Koplik's spots) कहा जाता है।
What are the small white centred red spots on the buccal mucosa in the early prodromal stage of measles called?
A. Chancre spots
B. Koplik's Spots [Correct]
C. Roth spots
D. Bitot's spots

Option (Correct): B. Koplik's Spots [Correct] -> Reason: Koplik's spots are the pathognomonic enanthem of measles and appear on the buccal mucosa (opposite the lower molars) 1–2 days prior to the appearance of the maculopapular rash.
Option (Incorrect): A. Chancre spots -> Reason: Chancres are painless primary ulcers of syphilis.
Option (Incorrect): C. Roth spots -> Reason: Roth spots are retinal haemorrhages seen in infective endocarditis.
Option (Incorrect): D. Bitot's spots -> Reason: Bitot's spots are foamy, triangular plaques on the conjunctiva due to Vitamin A deficiency.
Hint: खसरा (Measles) की जांच करते समय गाल के अंदर दिखाई देने वाले कोप्लिक स्पॉट्स (Koplik's Spots) एक अहम संकेत होते हैं।

Q7. Communicable Diseases
प्रश्न: राष्ट्रीय क्षय रोग उन्मूलन कार्यक्रम (NTEP / DOTS) के तहत pulmonary TB के नए मरीजों के लिए गहन चरण (Intensive Phase) आम तौर पर दो महीने चलता है.
Under NTEP/DOTS what is the standard length of the Intensive Phase for new PTB patients?
A. 1 month
B. 2 months [Correct]
C. 6 months
D. 9 months

Option (Correct): B. 2 months [Correct] -> Reason: Standard short course chemotherapy for new drug sensitive TB under NTEP is 2 months of intensive phase (IP) on 4 fixed dose combination drugs followed by 4 months of continuation phase (CP).
Option (Incorrect): A. 1 month -> Reason: One month is not enough time to get the initial bacterial load down and to have sputum conversion.
Option (Incorrect): C. 6 months -> Reason: Six months is the total duration of standard anti-TB treatment (2 months IP + 4 months CP) not just the duration of the intensive phase.
Option (Incorrect): D. 9 months -> Reason: 9 months is for the specific category regimens or the extrapulmonary/MDR protocols under the special guidelines.
संकेत: नई टीबी (TB) के मरीजों के लिए 2 महीने का इंटेंसिव फेज और 4 महीने का कंटिन्युएशन फेज निर्धारित है।

Q8. Community Health Organization & Ethics
प्रश्न: भारतीय लोक स्वास्थ्य मानकों (IPHS) के हिसाब से, समतल इलाकों में एक प्राथमिक स्वास्थ्य केंद्र (PHC) आम तौर पर कितनी ग्रामीण आबादी के लिए बनाया जाता है?
As per the Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS), a PHC in the plain areas is established for a standard population of what?
A. 1,000 population
B. 5,000 population
C. 30,000 population (10,000 in hilly/tribal areas) [Correct]
D. 1,20,000 population

Option (Correct): C. 30,000 population (10,000 in hilly/tribal areas) [Correct] -> Reason: IPHS guidelines state that a PHC covers 30,000 in the plains and 20,000 in hilly, tribal or difficult terrain areas (Sub-Centres cover 5,000/3,000 and CHCs cover 1,20,000/80,000).
Option (Incorrect): A. 1,000 population -> Reason: 1,000 population would be village level ASHA/Village Health and Sanitation Committee coverage, not a medical facility.
Option (Incorrect): B. 5,000 population -> Reason: 5,000 population is the standard plain area norm for a Sub-Centre (Ayushman Arogya Mandir).
Option (Incorrect): D. 1,20,000 population -> Reason: 1,20,000 population is the standard plain area norm for a Community Health Centre (CHC).
Hint: सर्वदाः उप-केंद्र के लिए 5,000, पीएचसी के लिए 30,000, और सीएचसी के लिए 1,20,000 जनसंख्या का मानक याद रखें।

Q9. Nutrition & Maternal Health
उत्तर: 'एनीमिया मुक्त भारत' (6x6x6 रणनीति) के तहत गर्भवती महिलाओं को दी जाने वाली आयरन और फोलिक एसिड (IFA) की नीली गोली में 60 मिलीग्राम एलिमेंटल आयरन और 500 माइक्रोग्राम फोलिक एसिड होता है।
Under Anemia Mukt Bharat what is the elemental iron and folic acid content in the IFA Blue Tablet prescribed for pregnant women?
A. 20 mg Elemental Iron + 100 mcg Folic Acid
B. 60 mg Elemental Iron + 500 mcg Folic Acid [Correct]
C. 100 mg Elemental Iron + 1.5 mg Folic Acid
D. 30 mg Elemental Iron + 250 mcg Folic Acid

Option (Correct): B. 60mg elemental iron + 500mcg folic acid [Correct] -> Reason: Pregnant women are given IFA tablets (blue or red packaging depending on the brand) containing 60mg elemental iron and 500mcg (0.5mg) folic acid daily from the 2nd trimester for 180 days.
Option (Incorrect): A. 20mg Elemental Iron + 100mcg Folic Acid -> Reason: this lower dose is for young children/infants on a specific supplementation regime.
Option (Incorrect): C. 100mg elemental iron + 1.5mg folic acid -> Reason: 100mg is too much for routine antenatal prophylaxis and will increase the risk of GI side effects.
Option (Incorrect): D. 30mg Elemental Iron + 250mcg Folic Acid -> Reason: That dose is the weekly IFA dose for school age children (AWC/School programmes), not for pregnant women.
संकेत: गर्भवती महिलाओं को प्रसव से पहले हर दिन 60 mg एलिमेंटल आयरन और 500 mcg फोलिक एसिड की गोली 180 दिन तक दी जाती है।

Q10. Primary Care, First Aid & Digital Health
उत्तर: बायो-मेडिकल वेस्ट मैनेजमेंट नियम 2016 के संशोधित प्रावधानों के अनुसार, प्रसव के दौरान निकलने वाली अपरा, गर्भनाल और मानव ऊतक अवशेषों को पीले रंग के बैग में रखा जाता है。
According to the BMW Rules 2016 amendments, human anatomical waste (placenta, tissues etc) is disposed of in the red bag.
A. Red Bag (लाल बैग)
B. Yellow Bag (पीला बैग) [Correct]
C. Blue Box (नीला बॉक्स)
D. Black Bag (काला बैग)

Option (Correct): B. Yellow Bag (पीला बैग) [Correct] -> Reason: Human anatomical waste (soiled cotton/dressings, expired medicines, placenta etc.) is incinerated in Yellow bags as per the biomedical waste management protocol.
Option (Incorrect): A. Red Bag (लाल बैग) -> Reason: Red bags are for recyclable infected plastics (tubing, catheters, syringes etc. without needles).
Option (Incorrect): C. Blue Box (नीला बॉक्स) -> Reason: Blue boxes or cardboard boxes are for glass vials and metallic implants.
Option (Incorrect): D. Black Bag (काला बैग) -> Reason: Black bags are used for general non-hazardous municipal waste in the home, not for clinical bio-waste.
Hint: प्लेसेंटा, शरीर के अंग और सूती पट्टियाँ हमेशा पीले रंग के बायो-मेडिकल वेस्ट बैग में रखी जाती हैं।

• Gender Restriction: Strictly female candidates only.
• Age: 18 to 40 years as on 01st July of the recruitment year (with relaxation of age as per rules for OBC, SC, ST and UP domicile reserved categories and with upper age relaxation for government and contractual employees).
• Educational & Professional Qualification: Intermediate (10+2) pass from a recognised board and completion of a 1.5 or 2 year Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) course approved by the Indian Nursing Council (INC).
• Mandatory Council Registration: Active registration as an ANM with the Uttar Pradesh Nurses & Midwives Council (UPNMC, Lucknow) on or before the final closing date of application.
• UPSSSC PET Requirement: Valid scorecard from UPSSSC PET 2026 (or in an active qualifying cycle).

Can GNM or B.sc Nursing candidates apply? That's a very common question asked by nursing graduates. The official UPSSSC service rules state that the ANM cadre is strictly for candidates possessing an ANM diploma. GNM and B.Sc Nursing candidates can only apply for Staff Nurse vacancies and are generally not eligible for ANM posts unless they have a dual ANM qualification.